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The goal of a ISACA CISM mock exam is to test exam readiness. GetValidTest’s online ISACA CISM practice test can be accessed online through all major browsers such as Chrome, Firefox, Safari, and Edge. You can also download and install the offline version of ISACA CISM practice exam software on Windows-based PCs only. You can prepare for the Certified Information Security Manager exam without an internet connection using the offline version of the mock exam. ISACA CISM Practice Test not only gives you the opportunity to practice with real exam questions but also provides you with a self-assessment report highlighting your performance in an attempt.

ISACA CISM certification exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that are designed to test an individual's knowledge and understanding of the information security concepts and practices. CISM Exam is conducted in a computer-based format and is available at various testing centers worldwide. CISM exam duration is four hours, and the passing score is 450 out of 800.

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The CISM certification exam is a rigorous, four-hour test consisting of 150 multiple-choice questions that assess a candidate's knowledge and skills in four key domains: Information Security Governance, Risk Management, Information Security Program Development, and Information Security Incident Management. To be eligible to take the CISM Exam, candidates must have a minimum of five years of professional experience in information security, with at least three years in a management role.

ISACA Certified Information Security Manager Sample Questions (Q124-Q129):

NEW QUESTION # 124
To inform a risk treatment decision, which of the following should the information security manager compare with the organization's risk appetite?

A. Level of residual risk
B. Gap analysis results
C. Level of risk treatment
D. Configuration parameters

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The information security manager should compare the level of residual risk with the organization's risk appetite to inform a risk treatment decision. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying the risk treatment options, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. Risk appetite is the amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives. The information security manager should ensure that the residual risk is within the risk appetite, and if not, apply additional risk treatment measures or escalate the risk to the senior management for approval.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition eBook1, Chapter 2: Information Risk Management, Section:
Risk Management, Subsection: Risk Treatment, Page 102.

NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider?

A. Existence of the provider's incident response plan
B. Existence of a right-to-audit clause
C. Technical capabilities of the provider
D. Results of the provider's business continuity tests

Answer: C

Explanation:
The technical capabilities of the provider are the MOST important thing for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider because they determine the quality, reliability, and validity of the forensic services and results that the provider can deliver. The technical capabilities of the provider include the skills, experience, and qualifications of the forensic staff, the methods, tools, and standards that the forensic staff use, and the facilities, equipment, and resources that the forensic staff have. The information security manager should verify that the technical capabilities of the provider match the forensic needs and expectations of the organization, such as the type, scope, and complexity of the forensic investigation, the legal and regulatory requirements, and the time and cost constraints12. The existence of a right-to-audit clause (A) is an important thing for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider, but it is not the MOST important thing. A right-to-audit clause is a contractual provision that grants the organization the right to audit or review the performance, compliance, and security of the provider. A right-to-audit clause can help to ensure the accountability, transparency, and quality of the provider, as well as to identify and resolve any issues or disputes that may arise during or after the forensic service. However, a right-to-audit clause does not guarantee that the provider has the technical capabilities to conduct the forensic service effectively and efficiently12. The results of the provider's business continuity tests (B) are an important thing for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider, but they are not the MOST important thing. The results of the provider's business continuity tests can indicate the ability and readiness of the provider to continue or resume the forensic service in the event of a disruption, disaster, or emergency. The results of the provider's business continuity tests can help to assess the availability, resilience, and recovery of the provider, as well as to mitigate the risks of losing or compromising the forensic evidence or data. However, the results of the provider's business continuity tests do not ensure that the provider has the technical capabilities to perform the forensic service accurately and professionally12. The existence of the provider's incident response plan (D) is an important thing for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider, but it is not the MOST important thing. The existence of the provider's incident response plan can demonstrate the preparedness and capability of the provider to detect, report, and respond to any security incidents that may affect the forensic service or the organization. The existence of the provider's incident response plan can help to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the forensic evidence or data, as well as to comply with the legal and contractual obligations. However, the existence of the provider's incident response plan does not confirm that the provider has the technical capabilities to execute the forensic service competently and ethically12. Reference = 1: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 310-3111; 2: A Risk-Based Management Approach to Third-Party Data Security, Risk and Compliance - ISACA2

NEW QUESTION # 126
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

A. Identifying critical business processes
B. Ensuring human safety
C. Securing critical information assets
D. Ensuring the reliability of backup data

Answer: B

Explanation:
= Business continuity management (BCM) is the process of planning and implementing measures to ensure the continuity of critical business processes in the event of a disruption. The most important consideration of BCM is ensuring human safety, as this is the primary responsibility of any organization and the basis of ethical conduct. Human safety includes protecting the health and well-being of employees, customers, suppliers, and other stakeholders who may be affected by a disruption. Identifying critical business processes, ensuring the reliability of backup data, and securing critical information assets are also important aspects of BCM, but they are secondary to human safety. References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, ISACA,
2020, p. 2111; CISM Online Review Course, Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management, Module
4: Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery, ISACA2

NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct periodic business impact assessments?

A. Improve the results of last business impact assessment
B. Update recovery objectives based on new risks
C. Meet the needs of the business continuity policy
D. Decrease the recovery times

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM DEVELOPMENT
Explanation/Reference:

NEW QUESTION # 128
The purpose of a corrective control is to:

A. indicate compromise.
B. reduce adverse events.
C. ensure compliance.
D. mitigate impact.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Corrective controls serve to reduce or mitigate impacts, such as providing recovery capabilities. Preventive controls reduce adverse events, such as firewalls. Compromise can be detected by detective controls, such as intrusion detection systems (IDSs). Compliance could be ensured by preventive controls, such as access controls.

NEW QUESTION # 129
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